3 days ago
20
What I mean to imply is that if he sold off the estate to one of his sons-in-law before, his daughters and widow would be better off with Mr. Bingley or Mr. Darcy owning his estate instead of Mr. Collins.
I haven't read the book in many years. This question just suddenly popped in my mind. Was he forbidden by law? If so, then did the law also prohibit him from selling the estate if he was to become impoverished and the only way out had been selling the estate?
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